Posted by dan on Sunday, November 7, 2010 at 5:56pm.
There may be a trick on the wording on part be. It is not universally accepted in wording, but some teachers who dont know better use "completely inelastic collision" to mean the balls are stuck togther, and have the same velocity. If you make that assumption, you can get a velocity,otherwise, it is not solvable.
i understand but how to i go about solving this thats what i need help in, if that assumption is made.
since they are inelastic, they would stick together.
Final velocities
v1 = v2
momentum is still conserved.
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