Posted by **anonymous** on Thursday, October 28, 2010 at 11:02pm.

why does ln(1/x)= -1/x ?

- Calculus -
**jai**, Thursday, October 28, 2010 at 11:05pm
is that the derivative? if it is,

ln(1/x) can be written as:

ln (x^-1) = -ln(x)

since the derivative of ln (x) is 1/x, then

derivative of -ln(x) = ln(1/x)= -1/x

hope this helps.

- Calculus -
**anonymous**, Thursday, October 28, 2010 at 11:07pm
ohhh~ Thank You!

- Calculus -
**Bosnian**, Sunday, October 31, 2010 at 11:33am
ln(1/x)= ln(1)-ln(x)

ln(1))=0

ln(1)-ln(x)=0-ln(x)= -ln(x)

ln(1/x)=-ln(x)

## Answer this Question

## Related Questions

- Pre-Calculus/Calculus - I am too embarassed to ask this Calculus (really pre-...
- Finite Math - Fifty percent of students enrolled in calculus class have ...
- Calculus - What is the use of Calculus? How is it use in jobs? What jobs use ...
- Algebra - In an interview of 50 math majors, 12 liked calculus and geometry 18 ...
- Calculus - What is the simplest solution to the Brachistochrone problem and the ...
- math - 8. In an interview of 50 math majors, 12 liked calculus and geometry 18 ...
- math-calculus - 1.For any function y+f(x), express dy/dx using limit notation. ...
- Calculus - Use fundamental theorem of calculus: Int(pi/2_pi) of e^(sin(q))*cos(q...
- Math:Calculus - Use the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus to find the derivative ...
- calculus - Can someone please tell me what the word "WHOLE" AND "IRRATIONAL" ...

More Related Questions