Posted by anonymous on Thursday, October 28, 2010 at 11:02pm.
why does ln(1/x)= 1/x ?

Calculus  jai, Thursday, October 28, 2010 at 11:05pm
is that the derivative? if it is,
ln(1/x) can be written as:
ln (x^1) = ln(x)
since the derivative of ln (x) is 1/x, then
derivative of ln(x) = ln(1/x)= 1/x
hope this helps.

Calculus  anonymous, Thursday, October 28, 2010 at 11:07pm
ohhh~ Thank You!

Calculus  Bosnian, Sunday, October 31, 2010 at 11:33am
ln(1/x)= ln(1)ln(x)
ln(1))=0
ln(1)ln(x)=0ln(x)= ln(x)
ln(1/x)=ln(x)
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