Posted by **anonymous** on Thursday, October 28, 2010 at 11:02pm.

why does ln(1/x)= -1/x ?

- Calculus -
**jai**, Thursday, October 28, 2010 at 11:05pm
is that the derivative? if it is,

ln(1/x) can be written as:

ln (x^-1) = -ln(x)

since the derivative of ln (x) is 1/x, then

derivative of -ln(x) = ln(1/x)= -1/x

hope this helps.

- Calculus -
**anonymous**, Thursday, October 28, 2010 at 11:07pm
ohhh~ Thank You!

- Calculus -
**Bosnian**, Sunday, October 31, 2010 at 11:33am
ln(1/x)= ln(1)-ln(x)

ln(1))=0

ln(1)-ln(x)=0-ln(x)= -ln(x)

ln(1/x)=-ln(x)

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