Posted by **rick** on Monday, October 4, 2010 at 4:41pm.

Question: Use logical equivalnces to show that the propositions !p -> (q->r) and q -> (p v r) are logically equivalent.

I AM SO DAMN CONFUSED!

I tried to solve !p -> (q -> r) first

and I only got to !p -> (!q v r)

I cant see any other rule that would apply after i get that far! Someone with some knowledge please help!

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