Posted by **taylor** on Tuesday, September 28, 2010 at 12:47am.

A box of 6 coins (penny, nickel, dime or quarter) worth $0.67 is shaken. What is the probability that a nickel is drawn first and then a quarter? Assume no replacement and that all coins are equally likely.

- probability -
**Reiny**, Tuesday, September 28, 2010 at 8:26am
Obviously there will have to be 2 pennies.

The only way I can see to get 67 cents from 6 coins is

QQDNPP

prob(nickel, quarter) = (1/6)(2/5) = 2/30 = 1/15

or

C(1,1)C(1,1)/(C6,2) = 1/15 in combination terms

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