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September 18, 2014

September 18, 2014

Posted by **kelli** on Thursday, September 23, 2010 at 9:15pm.

Prove that the function f(x)= cosx-x has a zero in (o. pi/2) Justify.

- calculus -
**Reiny**, Thursday, September 23, 2010 at 10:15pmx = x^3 + 1

x^3 - x + 1 = 0

let f(x) = x^3 - x + 1

every cubic function, just like every odd exponent equation, crosses the x-axis at least once.

BTW, how about x = appr. -1.3247

for cosx - x = 0

cosx = x

graph y = cosx an y = x on the same graph

they only cross once, hence one solution

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