Friday

January 30, 2015

January 30, 2015

Posted by **Norma** on Thursday, July 29, 2010 at 11:55pm.

If you replace the equal sign of an equation with an inequality sign, is there ever a time when the same value will be a solution to both the equation and the inequality?

Write an inequality and provide a value that may or may not be a solution to the inequality. I don't understand it Thank you in advance.

- math -
**PsyDAG**, Friday, July 30, 2010 at 2:15pmInequalities are solved the same way as equations, except that the carat (<) is reversed when multiplying both sides by a negative number.

-4x > 8

x < -2

I hope this helps.

- math -
**Henry**, Friday, July 30, 2010 at 4:12pmY > X -2. Write and graph Eq of boundry

line: Y = X -2, (0, -2), (2, 0), (4 ,2)

The Eq of the boundary line always uses an equal sign. However,since there is no = sign in your original in-

equality,the graph should be a dotted line. The points on the dotted line

should not satisfy the inequality:

Y > X - 2

-2 > 0 -2

-2 > -2, This is not a true statement.

Therefore, the point does not satisfy the inequality and not a solution.

Let's test a point above the line:(0,0).

Y > X - 2

0 > 0 - 2

0 > -2, This is a true statement and

a solution. If 1 point above the line

is a solution, then all points above

the line are solutions. None of the

points below the line are solutions;

and , therefore, do not satisfy the

inequality. TEST A FEW!

If your inequality contained an =

sign(X - Y >= -2), your boundary

line would be a solid line, and all

points on it would satisfy the in-

equality.

An equation states that the

quanity on the left is equal to the

quantity on the right. So if I replace

the equal sign with an inequality sign, it becomes an untrue statement;

because it is still an equation.

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