posted by rfvv .
1. He ate lots of red bean sherbet.
2. He ate lots of it.
(Can we use #2? It refers to red bean sherbet. What does 'lots' modify?)
lots of = a great deal of, much, "more than a little!"
Yes, both are correct.
"Lots" is a noun -- so doesn't modify anything. It's used as a direct object of the verb "ate."
Doesn't 'lots of' modify 'it'?
Only adverbs and adjectives modify anything. In your sentence, the prepositional phrase "of it" modifies the noun "lots."
1. He ate much it.
2. He ate many it.
3. He ate much ot it.
4. He ate many of it.
(Thank you. What aobut the sentences? Which ones are grammatical?)
None are correct as is. You need this:
He ate much of it.
Only 3 is correct. Many means more than one and is plural. 4 should be: "He ate many of them."
You need the adjectival prepositional phrase "of it" or "of them" to modify "much" and "many."