Posted by rfvv on Monday, July 5, 2010 at 9:19pm.
1. He ate lots of red bean sherbet.
2. He ate lots of it.
(Can we use #2? It refers to red bean sherbet. What does 'lots' modify?)
- English - SraJMcGin, Monday, July 5, 2010 at 9:26pm
lots of = a great deal of, much, "more than a little!"
- English - Ms. Sue, Monday, July 5, 2010 at 9:27pm
Yes, both are correct.
"Lots" is a noun -- so doesn't modify anything. It's used as a direct object of the verb "ate."
- English - rfvv, Monday, July 5, 2010 at 9:31pm
Doesn't 'lots of' modify 'it'?
- English - Ms. Sue, Monday, July 5, 2010 at 9:37pm
Only adverbs and adjectives modify anything. In your sentence, the prepositional phrase "of it" modifies the noun "lots."
- English - rfvv, Monday, July 5, 2010 at 9:42pm
1. He ate much it.
2. He ate many it.
3. He ate much ot it.
4. He ate many of it.
(Thank you. What aobut the sentences? Which ones are grammatical?)
- English - Writeacher, Monday, July 5, 2010 at 9:44pm
None are correct as is. You need this:
He ate much of it.
- English - Ms. Sue, Monday, July 5, 2010 at 9:45pm
Only 3 is correct. Many means more than one and is plural. 4 should be: "He ate many of them."
You need the adjectival prepositional phrase "of it" or "of them" to modify "much" and "many."
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