Posted by anonymous on Saturday, June 19, 2010 at 11:56am.
I've asked about this same question before, and someone gave me the way to finish, which I understand to some extent. I need help figuring out what they did in the second step though. How they got to the third step from the second.
[sinx + tanx]/[cosx + 1] = tanx
makes sense so far, but I don't know how they got from here to the next one
or to the next
but from there I understand
- maths - trigonometry - Reiny, Saturday, June 19, 2010 at 12:31pm
It looks like you cut-and-pasted part of my solution I gave you for this question
I multiplied top and bottom by (cosx -1)/cosx -1) , which of course has a value of 1 and does not change the value of the Left Side.
It is a step similar to the one we use in "rationalizing a denominator", I noticed that this would yield cos^2x -1 , which then could be replaced by the single term sin^2x
- maths - trigonometry - anonymous, Saturday, June 19, 2010 at 1:47pm
Wow that was a tough one... It took me so long to figure out, even with your help! Thanks Reiny! :)
- maths - trigonometry - Loved Chilapu, Tuesday, March 29, 2016 at 2:58am
Prov that 1-(sinxtanx) / 1+sec x
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