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January 30, 2015

January 30, 2015

Posted by **y912f** on Friday, May 7, 2010 at 12:27pm.

i think the answer is yes, but can someone explain to me why it's yes, and how you find out if it's a function or not.

I know that for every value of x there should be one value of y, but how do you figure that out in a problem like this?

- Algebra -
**bobpursley**, Friday, May 7, 2010 at 12:36pmfor any x, you get a specific y. It is a function. Now for any x, you get more than one y, it is not a function.

- Algebra -
**y912f**, Friday, May 7, 2010 at 12:39pmSo, this one is a function..? because for x you get only one y

- Algebra -
**bobpursley**, Friday, May 7, 2010 at 12:40pmYes, if any x maps to one specific y, it is a function.

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