Posted by Thara! on Wednesday, April 21, 2010 at 10:13pm.
I solved for both which i got
aFV= $10483.34
bFV= $16322.67
to get this answer i used this formula: FV=PMT((1+i)^n))-1/i
i just dont know what do i do now?
See answer to repost:
http://www.jiskha.com/display.cgi?id=1271904679
At the end of the first 2 years, the value of the payments up to that point will be
1200 ( 1.025^8 - 1)/.025 = 10483.339 (you had that)
let's "move" that up to the end of 5 years at the new rate
value = 10483.339(1.0225^12) = 13691.765
Amount of the last 3 years' payments at year 5
= 1200( 1.0225^12 - 1)/.0225 = 16322.666
so total amount = 16322.666 + 13691.765 = $30 014.43
Damon, didn't see that you already did this question.
Well, at least we agree down to the last penny, lol
Thank u soo much...u both really helped me at the right time...i have final exam tomorrow...and i am now prepared..thanks again!!!
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