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Posted by on Tuesday, March 23, 2010 at 12:55am.

i don't understand this, Show that if G(x) is an antiderivitive for f(X) and G(2)=-2 then G(4)=-7+((integral))top number 4 lower number 2 f(X)dx
its so confusing.? HELP. Thanks!!

  • Calculus Theorem! !!!???? - , Tuesday, March 23, 2010 at 10:53am

    There is a fundamental theorem oc calculaus that states that the integral of f(x)dx from a to b is
    G(b) - G(a). This assumes than f is the derivative of G (or G is the integral of f).
    Therefore
    G(4) = G(2) + integral(2 to 4)of f(x)dx

    What you wrote is not correct. The -7 should be -2.

  • Calculus Theorem! !!!???? - , Tuesday, March 23, 2010 at 10:04pm

    so does this mean that the equation is incorrect, or it is like undefined. That is exactly how it is in the paper, and it says to explain why it is right? So do i write it is incorrect.

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