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January 29, 2015

January 29, 2015

Posted by **Cutie_27** on Monday, February 15, 2010 at 6:44am.

- trig -
**dongo**, Monday, February 15, 2010 at 6:48amPlot the graphs. It is equal to sin(x).

Proof: cot(x), tan(x) have period pi and no amplitude in the classical way.

cos(0)=1, hence it cannot pass through the origin, whereas sin(0) = 0, yielding sin(x) to be the function-in-question.

- trig -
**Cutie_27**, Monday, February 15, 2010 at 6:53amthanks.

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