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Posted by on Monday, February 15, 2010 at 6:44am.

Is y equal to cotx, tanx, cosx, or sinx if its graph is periodic with a period of 2pi, an amplitude equal to 1, and it passes through the origin?

  • trig - , Monday, February 15, 2010 at 6:48am

    Plot the graphs. It is equal to sin(x).
    Proof: cot(x), tan(x) have period pi and no amplitude in the classical way.
    cos(0)=1, hence it cannot pass through the origin, whereas sin(0) = 0, yielding sin(x) to be the function-in-question.

  • trig - , Monday, February 15, 2010 at 6:53am


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