Posted by **ovadiel** on Thursday, February 4, 2010 at 8:43pm.

A logical equivalance is derived from Theorem,supply a reason for each step;

(pv~q)^(~pvq)

(~q v p)^(~q v ~p) by_________

~q v(p ^ ~p) by_________

~q v c by_________

~q by_________

Therefore,(p v~q)^ (~p v ~q) ~q.

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