Posted by
**Christy** on
.

A student asks whats wrong with the argument that the probability of rolling a double 6 in two rolls of a die is 1/3 because 1/6+1/6= 1/3? How do I explain the misconception?

I am thinking since there are six sides and they want to roll double 6's in two rolls, the odds are not going to be 1/3?

can anyone help me explain this better?