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August 26, 2016
Posted by **Anonymous** on Monday, December 14, 2009 at 11:17am.

The lower our real exchange rate is, the less expensive domestic goods are relative to foreign goods, and the greater the demand is for next exports.

I don't get the above statement, please look below to see if there is fault in my reasoning and explain why it is wrong.

From the real exchange rate equation:

E = eP/P* (where E = real exchange, e = norminal exchange, P = foreign price, P* = domestic price)

If E is low, that means the more expensive the domestic goods are compared to foreign goods. This is my observation because E and P* are inversely related according to the equation above. Since E is low, NX is high. This is because e and NX are inversely related and e and E are positively related.

I don't get why a lower real exchange rate leads to a lower price of domestic goods. Please explain. Thanks.

- Macroeconomics - SOE -
**economyst**, Monday, December 14, 2009 at 4:50pmI think of the exchange rate as the number of a foreign currency units per dollar. e.g., euros/dollars. From this perspective, the statement makes perfect sense.

- Macroeconomics - SOE -
**economyst**, Monday, December 14, 2009 at 7:48pmLet me elaborate with an example. Say something costs 2 euros and the euros to dollars ratio is 1. So, I need 2 dollars to purchase. (I take my 2 dollars to the exchange, and get 2 euros). Now let the euros/dollars exchange ratio drop to 0.5 NOW, I need to spend 4 dollars to get that same item. (I take 4 dollars to the exchange to get 2 euros). Conversely some guy in France now only needs to give up 1 euro to get 2 dollars.)

Hummmm, exchange rate went down, price of foreign good went up (domestic goods became relatively less expensive). To foreigners, the price of american goods just went down, so demand american exports just went up.

Which is exactly what your statement stays. - Macroeconomics - SOE -
**Anonymous**, Tuesday, July 28, 2015 at 5:35amConsider an economy with a constant nominal money

supply, a constant level of real output Y = 100, and a

constant real interest rate r = 0.10. Suppose that the

income elasticity of money demand is 0.5 and the interest

elasticity of money demand is --0.1.

a. By what percentage does the equilibrium price level

differ from its initial value if output increases to Y =

106 (and r remains at 0.1O)? (Hint: Use Eq. 7.11.)

h. By what percentage does the equilibrium price level

differ from its initial value if the real interest increases

to r = 0.11 (and Y remains at 100)?

c. Suppose that the real interest rate increases to r =

0.11. What would real output have to be for the equilibrium

price level to remain at its initial value?