Posted by Connor on .
There are two situations in which it possible for a charged particle to be in a magnetic field but not experiencing a magnetic force. What are they?
Given that Fm=qVBsintheta,
I am going to say
1. If the particle is NOT in motion.
2. The direction of currect and the direction of the magnetic field strength are parallel. (Making sin180=0).
Is this right?
Yes, if the particle is not in motion, it will not experience a magnetic force (faraday's law)
Yes to 2 too, using the third hand rule, fingers pointing in the direction magnetic field (north to south), thumb pointing in the direction of particle movement(in this case nowhere), palm faces direction of magnetic force(since there was no direction, it will not move)
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