Posted by Anonymous on Wednesday, November 18, 2009 at 10:04pm.
a) I disagree with your MC. Constant returns to scale (and no fixed costs) implies AC=MC. So, I think MC=10000
b) I disagree. Always Always Always, maximize by setting MC=MR. So, for the domestic 20000-40Yd = 10000. Solve for Yd. I get Yd=250.
(As a check, plug 250 into the demand equation and then calculate total profits. Compare that to your answer of Yd=100.)
Repeat for the Foreign market.
c) I disagree. In the domestic market, Yd=250, P=15000. Using the demand equation, bump up P by a small amount, say 1%. What is the %change Yd? I get Yd' = 242.5, a change of 7.5. and 7.5/250 = .03 or a 3%change. So the Price elasticity for domestic is 1%/-3% = -.3333.
Repeat for the foreign market.
d) I was also confused until I read the last sentence. Assume the firm can no-longer price discriminate -- that the price in the domestic market must equal the price in the foreign market. So, lets build the combined demand equation. Graphing, it will have a kink. Graphing the equation will be helpful to think about the problem
For prices above 20,000 it will sell only in the foreign market. At P=20000, Y=100. Draw a line starting at P=25000,Y=0 to P=20000, Y=100. Now then, at P=0 from the two demand equations, Yd=1000 and Yf=500, for a combined Y=1500. So draw a line from P=20000, Y=100 to P=0, Y=1500. The slope is 1400/-20000 = -14.2857. We have our demand curve. Extend this second piece back to the vertical axis. So, the relevant demand equation, I get, is P=21428 - 14.2857Y for Y>100.
So, MR will be 21428 - 28.5714Y
Set MC=MR and solve for Y.
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