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March 28, 2015

March 28, 2015

Posted by **Anneliese** on Tuesday, November 3, 2009 at 12:23pm.

- Algebra -
**bobpursley**, Tuesday, November 3, 2009 at 1:09pmif g(x) is the inverse of f(x), then

f(g(x)) should equal x.

You proved that....

f(inverse)=(3-4(3-x))/4=x

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