Posted by **Calculus** on Saturday, October 24, 2009 at 11:12pm.

ok I don't understand how this was done

inergral(y2 and y1)

pgywdy = 1/2 pgw(y2^2 - Y1^2)

ok it's been a while sense calc

I rember you add one to the power of the term that was a dervitative and divide by that power hence (1/2)(y2^2 - Y1^2)

but what happened to the y term after the g term???

please don't be mad

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