Posted by Steven on Thursday, October 8, 2009 at 9:30pm.
You are absolutely right. To be an eigenfunction, the operator has to reproduce the function with some multiplicative constant. Even without doing a lot of work, you can see for the special case of a=0 it doesn't work because you need to take four derivatives of sine to get back to sine. The problem says "determine if" so you can just say no. :)
Thank you! I thought I was going crazy because I wasn't able to an eigenfunction since 1st deriv. would be
= cos(x)*e^(ax) + a*sin(x)*e^(ax)
which is definitely not an eigenfunction of the operator.
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