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October 31, 2014

October 31, 2014

Posted by **Anonymous** on Wednesday, October 7, 2009 at 10:50am.

lim (cos(pi+h)+1)/h

h->0

answers are

f(x) = tan(x), a = pi

f(x) = cos(x), a = pi/4

f(x) = cos(x), a = pi

f(x) = sin(x), a = pi

- calculus -
**bobpursley**, Wednesday, October 7, 2009 at 11:31amUsing La'Hopital's rule...

lim = d/dx numerator/d/dx denominator

= -sin(pi+h)(1)/1= -sinPI

So none of the answers are really right, however, one can note that sinPI=-sinPI=0, so the last answer is right because it is zero. However, one could have written just as well

f(x)= 40.3 sinPI and that would be right. And because of this, equalling zero, the first answer is just as right. The question is not well crafted, unless I missed something.

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