Posted by Anonymous on Wednesday, October 7, 2009 at 10:47am.
consider the function g(x)=sin(10x)/x as x>>inf clearly this has a limit of zero.
Is this not the same function in the limit as f(x)?
You can prove that limx>0 of (f(x)=limx>inf f(1/x)
I should have made that clear.
Related Questions
Calculus - use law of cosines to show that theta equals inverse cosine of (a^2...
math - Let f be he real-valued function defined by f(x)=sin^3x+sin^3|x| (a) find...
Literaure Question-Desperate For Help! - It is not wise to rely on the ________ ...
Literaure Question-Desperate For Help! - It is not wise to rely on the ________ ...
Chemistry - how does the position of a metal in the periodic table determine ...
Calculus - Find the derivative 1. y = e^xSin²x 2. y = (x³+1)e^-4 3. y...
calculus - integrate xsin(2x)dx=
Trig - Can you show us how to use law of cosines to show that theta equals ...
Calculus - If f(x) = { √2-x x < 2 { x^3 + k(x+1) x ≥ ...
Calculus - Find dy/dx by implicit differentation. ysin(x^2)=-xsin(y^2)
For Further Reading
