Posted by Kourtney on Sunday, September 20, 2009 at 6:10pm.
Europeans didn't have colonies in the Americas before 1600.
How do you define successful?
Please clarify your question.
Sorry. Here's the question that we were given. Compare and contrast the Spanish, English, and the French models for civilization in the New World before 1600. One of these countries was very successful while the other two were not. Discuss which one was successful and why the other two were not.
Thanks for the clarification.
I agree with you that the English were probably most successful because they actually established colonies shortly after 1600, while the French and Spanish only wanted to exploit the New World for furs, gold, and other riches.
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