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April 19, 2015

April 19, 2015

Posted by **Bulldog** on Tuesday, August 11, 2009 at 11:02am.

And, why does this occur?

My thinking is:

I would have to say that many frequency distributions, in particularly the social sciences are approximately normal. When working with a typical distribution, there are going to be a few low scores and also a few high ones, but the majority will fall in the middle. This probably occurs when the probability of all the many determiners of a trait pointing in the same direction is virtually nil, and that of a balanced combination of determiners is much higher. As mentioned in class, the normal distribution is a good indicator to the kinds of distribution frequently encountered in medical and behavioral investigations and is the best-known for statistical treatments.

Is my logic correct here?

- Statistics -
**PsyDAG**, Wednesday, August 12, 2009 at 11:29amThe assumption is that any distribution of scores determined solely by chance factors will approximate a normal distribution, especially with a higher number of scores.

I'm not sure what you are saying in the third sentence of your thinking. It is unclear.

I hope this helps. Thanks for asking.

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