Posted by **Bulldog** on Tuesday, August 11, 2009 at 11:02am.

What does it mean when we state: "Many frequency distributions in the social sciences are approximately?

And, why does this occur?

My thinking is:

I would have to say that many frequency distributions, in particularly the social sciences are approximately normal. When working with a typical distribution, there are going to be a few low scores and also a few high ones, but the majority will fall in the middle. This probably occurs when the probability of all the many determiners of a trait pointing in the same direction is virtually nil, and that of a balanced combination of determiners is much higher. As mentioned in class, the normal distribution is a good indicator to the kinds of distribution frequently encountered in medical and behavioral investigations and is the best-known for statistical treatments.

Is my logic correct here?

## Answer this Question

## Related Questions

- statistics - The statement 'The median of a distribution is approximately equal ...
- statistics - The response to a question has three alternatives: A, B, and C. A ...
- MATH - What are open-ended frequency distributions? and Why are they necessary?
- statistics - Sat scores l around the nation tend to have a mean score around 500...
- Business Statistics - 1. Suppose that the mean of the annual return for common ...
- Statistics - Determine if the following are probability distributions (if no, ...
- Statistics - For two normal distributions with the same mean, but different ...
- Statistics - How do frequency tables, relative frequencies, and histograms ...
- statistic - A medical study was conducted to determine if taking calcium is ...
- Statistics - How will I know the modal class from a grouped data w/ equal class ...