Posted by Bulldog on .
What does it mean when we state: "Many frequency distributions in the social sciences are approximately?
And, why does this occur?
My thinking is:
I would have to say that many frequency distributions, in particularly the social sciences are approximately normal. When working with a typical distribution, there are going to be a few low scores and also a few high ones, but the majority will fall in the middle. This probably occurs when the probability of all the many determiners of a trait pointing in the same direction is virtually nil, and that of a balanced combination of determiners is much higher. As mentioned in class, the normal distribution is a good indicator to the kinds of distribution frequently encountered in medical and behavioral investigations and is the bestknown for statistical treatments.
Is my logic correct here?

Statistics 
PsyDAG,
The assumption is that any distribution of scores determined solely by chance factors will approximate a normal distribution, especially with a higher number of scores.
I'm not sure what you are saying in the third sentence of your thinking. It is unclear.
I hope this helps. Thanks for asking.