Posted by Bulldog on .
What does it mean when we state: "Many frequency distributions in the social sciences are approximately?
And, why does this occur?
My thinking is:
I would have to say that many frequency distributions, in particularly the social sciences are approximately normal. When working with a typical distribution, there are going to be a few low scores and also a few high ones, but the majority will fall in the middle. This probably occurs when the probability of all the many determiners of a trait pointing in the same direction is virtually nil, and that of a balanced combination of determiners is much higher. As mentioned in class, the normal distribution is a good indicator to the kinds of distribution frequently encountered in medical and behavioral investigations and is the best-known for statistical treatments.
Is my logic correct here?
The assumption is that any distribution of scores determined solely by chance factors will approximate a normal distribution, especially with a higher number of scores.
I'm not sure what you are saying in the third sentence of your thinking. It is unclear.
I hope this helps. Thanks for asking.