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Children are much more susceptible to violent programming because they have not yet developed the ability to distinguish between fantasy and reality.

For example, in more than 40% of programs with violence, the "bad" violent characters are never punished; and only 4% of violent programs portray a theme that promotes nonviolence.

Moreover, more than half of the violent interactions on television show no pain, and almost 40% of violent interactions show good guys behaving violently.

But when a child resorts to gunfire to correct what he sees as an injustice, is it unreasonable to think that repeated exposure to violent incidents on television—25% of which involve guns —might have provided encouragement to act that way?


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    is there anyway to attach papers?

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    Just type the name of the fallacy you think each example illustrates.

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