Posted by **B.B.** on Monday, June 22, 2009 at 8:08pm.

The question is this: You know that a number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by both 3 and 2. So why isn't a number divisible by 8 if it is divisible by both 4 and 2? My answer is this: The only prime factors of 6 are 2 and 3. So, if a number is divisible by both, then it is divisible by their product,6. The prime factors of 8 are 2, 3 times. In order for a number to be divisible by 8 it must have 3 factors of 2. If a number is divisible by 2 the quotient of that divisible by 4 , then the original number is divisible by 8. Is this right?

- Math -
**bobpursley**, Monday, June 22, 2009 at 8:14pm
correct, but wordy.

- Math -
**Kenzie**, Wednesday, September 7, 2016 at 3:28pm
HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

- Math -
**Naviana**, Thursday, January 5, 2017 at 8:43pm
Six

## Answer This Question

## Related Questions

- Math PLEASE HELP!!! - Which of the following is false? a. A number that is ...
- Math - Which of the following is false? a. A number that is divisible by 3 and ...
- Easy Math - The number of positive integers that are less than 500 and that are ...
- teaching math - Indicate whether the deductive reasoning used is an example of ...
- teaching math - Indicate whether the deductive reasoning used is an example of ...
- math - Indicate whether the deductive reasoning used is an example of affirming ...
- Math - True or fals: a number is divisible by 8 if it is divisble by 4 and ...
- math - Using the numbers 1 through 9 with no repeats, find a 9 number such that...
- math - The following conjectures were made by students. Are they true or false? ...
- math - is 504 divisible by 2,4,6,8 is 111 divisible by 3,9 is 3,217 divisible by...

More Related Questions