Posted by **B.B.** on Monday, June 22, 2009 at 8:08pm.

The question is this: You know that a number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by both 3 and 2. So why isn't a number divisible by 8 if it is divisible by both 4 and 2? My answer is this: The only prime factors of 6 are 2 and 3. So, if a number is divisible by both, then it is divisible by their product,6. The prime factors of 8 are 2, 3 times. In order for a number to be divisible by 8 it must have 3 factors of 2. If a number is divisible by 2 the quotient of that divisible by 4 , then the original number is divisible by 8. Is this right?

- Math -
**bobpursley**, Monday, June 22, 2009 at 8:14pm
correct, but wordy.

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