Posted by Anonymous on .
Given : f(x) = x^2 and g(x) = 2^x
The inverse of g is a function, but the inverse of f is not a function. Explain why the statement is true.

Grade 11 Algebra 2/Trig 
bobpursley,
the inverse of f will have two values for each value of indepentdent variable. the inverse of g does not.

Grade 11 Algebra 2/Trig 
Anonymous,
Thank you so much!!! :)