Monday

March 2, 2015

March 2, 2015

Posted by **Anonymous** on Monday, May 25, 2009 at 12:08pm.

inverse sin(-x)=-inverse sin(x)

inverse cos(-x)=-inverse cos(x)

I think that the first one is true and the second one is false but I do not know what to put down as a sketch or counterexample. Any help is appreciated.

- Math -
**PC**, Monday, May 25, 2009 at 12:36pmThe simplest way to determine if

inverse f(-x) =-inverse f(x)

is true for all values of x is to find out if f(x)=f(-x) for all values of x.

Substitute sin(x) or cos(x) for f(x) above and do a little sketching of each of the two trigonometric functions between -pi and +pi. You will get your answer by simply looking at the sketches.

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