Posted by **annie** on Thursday, May 14, 2009 at 11:49pm.

would this be a correct proof of the cauchy-schwartz inequality:

abs=absolute value

abs(u*v) is less than or equal to abs(u)*abs(v).

Then you divide both sides by abs(u)*abs(v) so that you get cos(theta) is less than or equal to 1.

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