Posted by annie on .
would this be a correct proof of the cauchy-schwartz inequality:
abs(u*v) is less than or equal to abs(u)*abs(v).
Then you divide both sides by abs(u)*abs(v) so that you get cos(theta) is less than or equal to 1.
- math - SraJMcGin,
If you know that the dot product of vectors u and v is |u| |v| cos theta
then you can surely say that
u dot v </= |u| |v|