Posted by Anonymous on Tuesday, April 21, 2009 at 5:51pm.
I'm having trouble visualizing your cash flow picture. Further, I dont have whatever lookup tables you are using. Sorry.
That said, the formula for converting something to a present value is PV=Vn/(1+r)^n -- where n is the number of years in the future, and r is the interest (discount) rate. So, something worth 535.90 six years from now would have a present value, using a 10% discount factor, of 535.90/(1.1)^6 = 302.50; very close to your 302.52
I hope this helps
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