We have never learned the formula
(P1V1/T1) = (P2V2/T2)
Is that the same thing as
P1V1T2=P2V2T1 ??
Suppose that 120.mL of argon is collected over water at 25C and 780.0 torr. Compute the volume of the dry argon at STP.
Would this be involved with Charles law?
DrBob11:
(P1V1/T1) = (P2V2/T2)
Don't forget to use T in Kelvin. Subtract the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure for this problem as well as the previous one.
Why do I have to subtract the vapor pressure of water? Shouldn't I be ignoring water vapor because the answer is talking about dry Ar though??
Yes, the formulas (P1V1/T1) = (P2V2/T2) and P1V1T2=P2V2T1 are equivalent. They both represent the ideal gas law, which describes the relationship between pressure (P), volume (V), and temperature (T) of an ideal gas.
To understand why these formulas are equivalent, let's break down the ideal gas law equation and see how they are derived:
The ideal gas law states that for a given amount of gas at constant temperature, the product of the pressure (P) and volume (V) is directly proportional to the product of the temperature (T). Mathematically, it can be expressed as:
P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2
To manipulate this equation to the form P1V1T2 = P2V2T1, we can cross multiply:
P1V1T2 = P2V2T1
So, both formulas are just different representations of the same relationship described by the ideal gas law. Either formula can be used to solve problems involving the pressure, volume, and temperature of gases.
Sure.
(P1V1/T1) = (P2V2/T2) =
P1V1T2 = P2V2T2.
That's the general gas law. It becomes Boyle's Law if you keep T constant (just cover up T1 and T2 and you're left with P1V1=P2V2).
Or it becomes Charle's Law if P is constant (cover up P1 and P2 and it becomes V1T2=V2T1).
And if V is held constant, (cover V1 and V2) and you have P1T2 = P2T1.