Saturday
November 1, 2014

Homework Help: Philosophy - Ethics

Posted by Chelsey on Wednesday, March 4, 2009 at 7:33pm.

I asked a question yesterday about Immanuel Kant, Grounding of the Metaphysics of Morals, and now I have a new question.
I am writing a paper on how Kant is saying that inclinations shouldn't be involved in moral decisions, because inclinations do not lead to moral worth, and such. And I began to question why anyone would give up the strive for happiness by acting on inclinations to act according to that maxim whereby you can at the same time wil that it should become a universal law.
And I can't find any evidence in Kant's work that is convincing enough to prove that it is better to give up the drive for happiness...
Can someone please help me? :)

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