Posted by Alex on .
I have a question relating to limits that I solved
lim(x>0) (1cosx)/2x^2
I multiplied the numerator and denominator by (1+cosx) to get
lim(x>0) (1cos^2x)/2x^2(1+cosx)
= lim(x>0)sin^2x/2x^2(1+cosx)
the lim(x>0) (sinx/x)^2 would =1
I then substituted the remaining portion with 0 and got 1/4
Is this answer right??

Calculus..more help! 
bobpursley,
One of the ways to check these is to look a graph of it. Yes, it is right.