Posted by james on Friday, February 20, 2009 at 6:04pm.
How should the phrase, "All men are created equal" be understood today, and why? What do you think Thomas Jefferson meant when he wrote these words in the Declaration of Independence in 1776, and why?
History - Ms. Sue, Friday, February 20, 2009 at 6:06pm
It seems to me that "All men are created equal" is well understood today. The only change I'd make is all people are created equal.
Jefferson probably meant that all white men were created equal.
History- sue - james, Friday, February 20, 2009 at 6:12pm
why do you think he meant all white men?
History - Bella, Friday, February 20, 2009 at 6:13pm
because in the declaration it talks about African Americans and Native Americans in a very negative way...so it is obviously only talking about white men
History - Bella, Friday, February 20, 2009 at 6:16pm
"He has excited domestic insurrections amongst us, and has endeavored to bring on the inhabitants of our frontiers the merciless Indian Savages, whose known rule of warfare, is an undistinguished destruction...)
'merciless, indian savages' doesnt sound like they're ALL created equal
History - james, Friday, February 20, 2009 at 6:24pm
Where can I find a copy of the Declaration of Independence?
History - Writeacher, Friday, February 20, 2009 at 6:32pm
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