Posted by y912f on Sunday, January 25, 2009 at 1:14pm.
In the Declaration of Independence what evidence is there that the colonists had already unsuccessfully voiced concerns to the King?
i found this phrase from it, could it be the answer?:
"He has refused for a long time, after such dissolutions, to cause others to be elected; whereby the Legislative powers, incapable of Annihilation, have returned to the People at large for their exercise; the State remaining in the mean time exposed to all the dangers of invasions from without, and convulsions within."
U.S.History - y912f, Sunday, January 25, 2009 at 1:45pm
can someone pleease help me with this...
U.S.History - SraJMcGin, Sunday, January 25, 2009 at 2:39pm
Here is a place to begin:
U.S.History - <3Medic+Droid<3, Sunday, January 25, 2009 at 2:49pm
That sounds about right.
I hated studing the American documents of early colonists-important, and utterly boring to me.
Anyway, if i got anything from the lessons on the Declaration of Independence-it's that the king was being ignorant of the colonists, and took it a badly lost war over less equipped farmers to get him to listen.
U.S.History - bob, Tuesday, February 10, 2009 at 11:34am
yes that is the ansswer for sure. good job!
U.S.History - tika, Wednesday, February 11, 2009 at 10:52pm
"He has abdicated government here, by declaring us out of his protection, and waging war agaisnt us."
U.S.History - nani, Wednesday, September 2, 2009 at 10:48pm
but hey look at this its in my book:
"He has refused his Assent to Laws, the most wholesome and necessary for the public good."
U.S.History - Jiskha King, Thursday, November 22, 2012 at 6:48pm
The Declaration states that they had petitioned for redress and repeated petitions have been answered only by repeated injuries
U.S.History - That Guy, Tuesday, January 22, 2013 at 1:23pm
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