Posted by Kennedy on Monday, December 15, 2008 at 3:57pm.
x^3 has an inverse, as does x^4 x<=0
Why? The others do not have a one for one mapping from x to one f(x).
for instance, x^4 f(-sqrt2)=f(sqrt2)
http://www.uncwil.edu/courses/mat111hb/functions/inverse/inverse.html#sec1
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