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Algebra check

posted by on .

Determine whether f(x)=x^2 is one to one.

I have the answer as yes. Is this right

  • Algebra check - ,

    I don't know what you mean by "one to one" for a function. It is true that for each x there is one y.

  • Algebra check - ,

    for every value of x there is one and only one value of f(x)
    [That means f(x) is a function of x]
    however for every value of f(x) there are two values of x
    [ that means that the inverse is not a function]

  • Algebra check Damon - ,

    Not a function but is it one to one?

  • Algebra check Damon - ,

    No it is not
    It sure looks obvious to me that was what Damon told you.
    To have a one-to-one, both the relation and its inverse must be functions.
    Yours is not

  • Thanks - ,

    Thanks

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