posted by Shawn on .
Determine whether f(x)=x^2 is one to one.
I have the answer as yes. Is this right
I don't know what you mean by "one to one" for a function. It is true that for each x there is one y.
for every value of x there is one and only one value of f(x)
[That means f(x) is a function of x]
however for every value of f(x) there are two values of x
[ that means that the inverse is not a function]
Not a function but is it one to one?
No it is not
It sure looks obvious to me that was what Damon told you.
To have a one-to-one, both the relation and its inverse must be functions.
Yours is not