Posted by Shawn on Sunday, November 30, 2008 at 7:59pm.
I don't know what you mean by "one to one" for a function. It is true that for each x there is one y.
for every value of x there is one and only one value of f(x)
[That means f(x) is a function of x]
however for every value of f(x) there are two values of x
[ that means that the inverse is not a function]
Not a function but is it one to one?
No it is not
It sure looks obvious to me that was what Damon told you.
To have a one-to-one, both the relation and its inverse must be functions.
Yours is not
Thanks
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