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March 2, 2015

March 2, 2015

Posted by **Shawn** on Sunday, November 30, 2008 at 7:59pm.

I have the answer as yes. Is this right

- Algebra check -
**drwls**, Sunday, November 30, 2008 at 8:03pmI don't know what you mean by "one to one" for a function. It is true that for each x there is one y.

- Algebra check -
**Damon**, Sunday, November 30, 2008 at 8:03pmfor every value of x there is one and only one value of f(x)

[That means f(x) is a function of x]

however for every value of f(x) there are two values of x

[ that means that the inverse is not a function]

- Algebra check Damon -
**Shawn**, Sunday, November 30, 2008 at 9:05pmNot a function but is it one to one?

- Algebra check Damon -
**Reiny**, Sunday, November 30, 2008 at 9:25pmNo it is not

It sure looks obvious to me that was what Damon told you.

To have a one-to-one, both the relation and its inverse must be functions.

Yours is not

- Algebra check Damon -
- Thanks -
**Shawn**, Sunday, November 30, 2008 at 9:27pmThanks

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