posted by charlie .
Whether or not it'll help me, am i safe to deduce that:
If a simple pendulum is released from rest at time t=0;
from a displacement of x rad from equilibrium;
Then the amplitude of the oscilation is also x rad?
The answer is "yes". If you gave us the complete question we might have been able to offer more suggestions. If the amplitude is used to get something else, you may want to look at this web page: