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November 24, 2014

November 24, 2014

Posted by **joe** on Sunday, October 19, 2008 at 10:07pm.

i know the formula for apprx. is y = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a) but i don't understand how to work backwards to get this.

- math-calc -
**Count Iblis**, Sunday, October 19, 2008 at 10:23pmIf f(x) is approximated by the tangent line y(x) near x = 0, then that means that:

f(0) = y(0)

f'(0) = y'(0)

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