i want to know if these 2 questions are the same, To what extent is there social mobility in modern britain ?..and Assess how much socila mobility is there in Britain?
Should i talk on on the arguments which shows that there is really s.mobility and should 1 write agruments which shows that there is no s.mobility??
http://www.jiskha.com/display.cgi?id=1223998579
Did you really read Ms. Sue's comments? You'll need to do some detailed clarifying to get anywhere with this question.
From the two questions you have provided, "To what extent is there social mobility in modern Britain?" and "Assess how much social mobility is there in Britain?" it seems like both questions are asking about the level of social mobility in modern Britain. While the wording may be slightly different, the essence of both questions is the same.
In terms of approaching the arguments, it is generally a good practice to consider both sides of the argument when discussing a topic like social mobility. This allows for a balanced and comprehensive analysis. Therefore, it would be beneficial to present arguments that highlight both the presence and absence of social mobility in Britain.
When presenting arguments that demonstrate the existence of social mobility, you can focus on factors such as access to education, economic growth, changes in occupations, and individual success stories of people who have moved up the social ladder. These arguments can support the idea that there is social mobility in modern Britain.
On the other hand, when presenting arguments against social mobility, you can discuss factors like income inequality, the influence of social background on opportunities, limited upward mobility for certain groups, and the impact of inherited wealth. These arguments shed light on the challenges and limitations of social mobility in Britain.
By considering both sides of the argument, you can provide a comprehensive assessment of the level of social mobility in Britain, which will strengthen your analysis and make it more objective.