Posted by arya on Wednesday, September 24, 2008 at 8:14pm.
how am i supposed to use the quotient of powers property to show that zero to the zero power is undefined?

math  David Q, Thursday, September 25, 2008 at 4:15pm
The power of a quotient is equal to the quotient obtained when the dividend and divisor are each raised to the indicated power separately, before the division is performed  so I'm assuming that this is what the quotient of powers property is.
So perhaps the argument would be something like this:
0^0 = 0^(11)
= (0^1) / (0^1)
= 0 / 0
which is undefined. (I'm not certain that this is the answer you're looking for, but it seems to fit the question.)
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