Posted by **arya** on Wednesday, September 24, 2008 at 8:14pm.

how am i supposed to use the quotient of powers property to show that zero to the zero power is undefined?

- math -
**David Q**, Thursday, September 25, 2008 at 4:15pm
The power of a quotient is equal to the quotient obtained when the dividend and divisor are each raised to the indicated power separately, before the division is performed - so I'm assuming that this is what the quotient of powers property is.

So perhaps the argument would be something like this:

0^0 = 0^(1-1)

= (0^1) / (0^1)

= 0 / 0

which is undefined. (I'm not certain that this is the answer you're looking for, but it seems to fit the question.)

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