Posted by **arya** on Wednesday, September 24, 2008 at 8:14pm.

how am i supposed to use the quotient of powers property to show that zero to the zero power is undefined?

- math -
**David Q**, Thursday, September 25, 2008 at 4:15pm
The power of a quotient is equal to the quotient obtained when the dividend and divisor are each raised to the indicated power separately, before the division is performed - so I'm assuming that this is what the quotient of powers property is.

So perhaps the argument would be something like this:

0^0 = 0^(1-1)

= (0^1) / (0^1)

= 0 / 0

which is undefined. (I'm not certain that this is the answer you're looking for, but it seems to fit the question.)

## Answer this Question

## Related Questions

- math - How do I use the quotient of powers property to show that zero to the ...
- algebra,math - i am clueless about this: (#1)What expression raised to the ...
- ALGEBRA - Can anyone explain this in 50 words why the equation turns out like it...
- domain - Find the domains of f and f' 1, f(x) = xe^x 2. f(x) = x^(3/5) 3. f(x...
- math-please help - Explain why the slope of a horizontal line is zero, and the ...
- Kate - ok I was doing this problem cos^-1 (0) and was like oh that would be pi/2...
- math,algebra - Use the five properties of exponents to simplify each of the ...
- math - use the given zero to find the remaining zeros of the function: F9x)=x^3...
- math derivative please help - the derivative of 2x^e is zero right or no? do i ...
- math - Am I correct to say that 5/0 = 5 or is it undefined no your ar incorrect ...

More Related Questions