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January 31, 2015

January 31, 2015

Posted by **Oscillations** on Monday, April 21, 2008 at 6:15pm.

I don't know how to go about this, I thought to use T = 2pi*sqr(L/g) and since F=MA, I divide A by time and . . . but I know this is completely wrong so again, help please.

- Physics -
**bobpursley**, Monday, April 21, 2008 at 7:44pmNo. Figure the height of the pendulum given the angle (a bit of geometry is required). Now, the Potential energy at that height is mgh. Set that equal to KE at the bottom, 1/2 mv^2, and solve for v.

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