Posted by Mikal on .
Ive been shown that a function can be written like so
f:X>Y,f(x)=rule
where X is the Domain and Y, the codomain. Firstly, what is the codomain? Ive tried looking it up but all I get is "the set of which y values fall in".
If that is the case, say for the function, y=1/(x1), do I write it like this
f:R\{1}>R\{0},f(x)=1/(x1)
or instead of R\{0}, just
f:R\{1}>R,f(x)=1/(x1)?? Where R is the set of all real numbers.
And please, if the answer is both, which would be "more right"?

Function Notation 
lllllllllllll,
i don't really know because one where is your numbers at