Posted by **Anonymous** on Sunday, March 30, 2008 at 10:53pm.

For 0 < x < PI/2, if y = sin(x)^x, then dy/dx is..

I understand that you can take the natural logarithm of both sides and then take the derivative but why can't I simply take the derivative of it and get.. dy/dx = x(cos(x))(sin(x))^(x-1).

Thanks in advance :).

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