Posted by Anonymous on Sunday, March 30, 2008 at 10:53pm.
For 0 < x < PI/2, if y = sin(x)^x, then dy/dx is..
I understand that you can take the natural logarithm of both sides and then take the derivative but why can't I simply take the derivative of it and get.. dy/dx = x(cos(x))(sin(x))^(x1).
Thanks in advance :).

Calculus  Original poster, Sunday, March 30, 2008 at 11:23pm
Oh that was silly >.>.. I can't apply the power rule since it doesn't have a constant exponent. So is the only way to differentiate this equation is to use the natural logarithm and then the power + chain rule?