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January 28, 2015

January 28, 2015

Posted by **Teresa** on Wednesday, March 12, 2008 at 8:31pm.

My attempt: 1000(.08)/2 * (1-1/1.06^20) + (1000/1.06^20) = 40(11.4699) + 311.80 = 770.60

- Finance (Check Answer plz) -
**economyst**, Thursday, March 13, 2008 at 11:38amI get a different answer.

An excel spreadsheet is very helpful for these types of problems. (However, I am aware that finance instructors are into using look-up tables rather that calculating everything out). I presume you can use EXCEL to calculate.

Anyway, find V where:

V = C/(1+i) + C/(1+i)^2 + ... C/(1+i)^n + P/(1+i)^n

Where V is the bond value, C is the coupon payment, i is the interest rate, n is the number of payments, and P is the Principal.

Since payments are semiannual, I presume that C=$80/2=$40 and i=.06/2 = .03, n=40, and P=1000

I get V=1236.40

- Finance (Check Answer plz) -
**Teresa**, Thursday, March 13, 2008 at 6:31pmThanks, I know now where I went wrong. I need to ask something else.

Comp. Q has just paid a dividend of $1.40 per share. Its dividend is expected to grow at 5% per year perpetually. If the required return is 10%, what is the value of a share in Company Q?

I think I use formula p0 = Div/r-g but I don't know where the required rate of return comes into play.

I know:

g=.05

r=

Retention Ratio=90%

Req. rate of return=10%

growth rate in Div. of (.9*.1)=9%

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