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March 2, 2015

March 2, 2015

Posted by **Mete** on Tuesday, March 11, 2008 at 11:31pm.

For this question I tried using binomial distribution by setting x = 0, 1, 2, 3. p=.2 and n =15. After doing all of them, Do add the probabilities to get the answer?

- Statistical Methods -
**PsyDAG**, Wednesday, March 12, 2008 at 2:13amTo get the probability that

*all*events would occur, you need to*multiply*the probability of each of the individual events.

The probablitiy of no rainy days is .8^15.

The probability of one rainy day is .2 * .8^14.

The probability of two rainy days is .2^2 * .8^13.

The probability of three rainy days is .2^3 * .8^12.

The probability of being either one or the other of these four probabilities is found by adding the four products above.

I hope this helps. Thanks for asking.

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