Posted by aa on Tuesday, March 4, 2008 at 7:44pm.
if you get to cosx+sinx=1/square root of 2, well we are doing identities in my pre-cal class and cosx+sinx always equals 1, so it would be 1/square root of 2.
Sorry, cosx+ sinx is not equal to 1 (from the identites). But, it was like this:
(sinx)^2+ (cosx)^2= 1
Can Anybody answer this question for me???? Please???
PlEASE hlep me with this!! I need it as soon as possible.......
cos(x-(pi/4))+sin(x-(pi/4))=1
Find the answer from 0 to 2pi
square both side:
(cosx+sinx)^x=(1/square root of 2)
then solve: it will work.
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