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April 16, 2014

April 16, 2014

Posted by **sarah** on Tuesday, February 26, 2008 at 8:37pm.

if the sum from n=1 to infinity of a(n) converges and an is greater than 0, then the sum from n=1 to infinity of the sin (a of n) converges. i said this was true because the sin where a is greater than 0 will always be greater than one and will converge

- calculus -
**Damon**, Tuesday, February 26, 2008 at 10:30pmHuh? the sin of anything is between -1 and +1

I think it is true because the absolute value of it converges, even if you forget about the negative contributions of the sin in the fourth and third quadrants.

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