Posted by **sarah** on Tuesday, February 26, 2008 at 8:37pm.

true or false-

if the sum from n=1 to infinity of a(n) converges and an is greater than 0, then the sum from n=1 to infinity of the sin (a of n) converges. i said this was true because the sin where a is greater than 0 will always be greater than one and will converge

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