Posted by sarah on Sunday, February 10, 2008 at 10:54pm.
how would you do this improper integral
1/(x1)
from 0 to 2
this is improper at one, so I split it up into two integrals
ln(x1) from 01 and
ln(x1) from 12
I then did for the first one the (lim t>1() of ln(t1))(ln(01))
and then the same thing for the second part
I didn't know if this was right though, or what the answer would be

calculus  drwls, Sunday, February 10, 2008 at 11:27pm
Did you read my previous answer?

calculus  sarah, Sunday, February 10, 2008 at 11:39pm
yes, but I wasn't sure of the final answer from your answer.

calculus  drwls, Monday, February 11, 2008 at 2:26am
I left the final calculation up to you. If you define the integral as the sum of two parts that each approach within a distance a of x=1, and let a gapproach zero, than the answer will be zero because the two parts will always cancel, not matter how small a is.
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