Posted by sarah on Saturday, February 9, 2008 at 6:34pm.
how would you do this improper integral
1/(x1)
from 0 to 2
this is improper at one, so I split it up into two integrals
ln(x1) from 01 and
ln(x1) from 12
I then did for the first one the (lim t>1() of ln(t1))(ln(01))
and then the same thing for the second part
I didn't know if this was right though, or what the answer would be

calc  Count Iblis, Saturday, February 9, 2008 at 6:55pm
You need to include absolute value signs in the argument of the logarithm:
lnx1 from 01 and
lnx1 from 12
What you find is that both the limits diverge logarithmically, so the integral doesn't exist. However, if you add both the terms together and take the limit in one go, then the divergent terms cancel. This is called the Cauchy principal value of the integral.
Answer This Question
Related Questions
 calculus  how would you do this improper integral 1/(x1) from 0 to 2 this is ...
 calculus  how would you do this improper integral 1/(x1) from 0 to 2 this is ...
 Calculus  integral oo, oo [(2x)/(x^2+1)^2] dx (a) state why the integral is ...
 improper integral  can any one explain how to evaluate this improper integral i...
 calculus  1. integral oo, oo [(2x)/(x^2+1)^2] dx 2. integral 0, pi/2 cot(theta...
 Calculus  What is the connection between improper integrals, Riemann sums, and ...
 calculus  There are four integrals: 1) definite integral x/(1+x^4)dx b/w ...
 calculus  There are four integrals: 1) definite integral x/(1+x^4)dx b/w ...
 Calc 2  a. Integral (x^2)/(sqrt(1+(x^2))) Would I separate these two into 2 ...
 Calculus (improper integrals)  the integral from 0 to lnx of lnx/(x^1/2) thanks...
More Related Questions